1. In outcomes based education, which of the following are not considered outcomes? *
A.
Products
B. Procedures
C.
Portfolios
D.
Performances
2.
What is the erroneous concept of outcomes in Outcomes-Based Education? *
A.
Performance
B.
Results
C.
Products
D. Content
3.
In a Problem-Based Learning Group, who take notes, join discussion and review
materials? *
A.
Facilitator
B.
Team leader
C. Team members
D.
Recorder
4.
In assessment for Problem-Based Learning, who are responsible in judging
student performance? *
A. Teacher-and-peers
B.
Teacher-and-supervisors
C. Teacher-and-students
D.
Teacher-students-supervisors
5.
Following a model procedure, how is the process in Problem-Based Learning
sequenced?
I.
List action for what we need to know
II.
Explore the issues
III.
Write solution with supporting document
IV.
Develop and write problems statement *
A.
I, IV, II, and III
B.
II, IV, I, and III
C. II, I, IV, and III
D.
III, I, IV, and II
6.
Which is not an aim in having partners in team learning? *
A.
Focused attention
B.
Sharing ideas
C.
Cooperative work
D. Lighter work
7.
What is the active learning strategy to promote friendly competition and an
atmosphere of fun in learning? *
A. Games
B.
Fishbowl
C.
Debate
D.
Case study
8.
Among development activities, which does not belong to data-gathering
activities which can allow active participation by students? *
A. Library research
B.
Case study
C.
Solving real-world problems
D.
Panel discussion
9.
Of the following, which is the most conducive for authentic assessment? *
A.
Complex multiple-choice test
B.
Performance drill
C.
De-contextualized setting
D. Real world application
10.
Which of the following are alternative assessments? *
A. Portfolio, exhibits, journals
B.
Paper-and-pencil test, demonstration, reports
C.
Multiple choice, structured observation, sentence completion
D.
Self-assessment, authentic assessment, surveys
11.
In order for assessment to have clarity of learning targets, outcomes must be
stated in behavioral terms so that this can be measured. Which of the following
shows this desired clarity? *
A.
To practice reading with competence
B. To improve the speed of reading competence
C.
To appreciate reading competence
D.
To understand the concept of reading competence
12.
Among recording devices during assessment, which can the student use to
describe behavior and context which observations may be forgotten or remembered
incorrectly? *
A.
Portfolio
B.
Checklist
C. Anecdotal record
D.
Self-assessment
13.
What is a scoring guide that lists the criteria and their levels of quality on
which evaluation will be focused? *
A.
Portfolio
B.
Journal
C.
Stem
D. Rubric
14.
Which is an alternative assessment tool that consists of a collection of work
artifacts or in progress accomplishment by a targeted clientele? *
A. Portfolio
B.
Evaluation instrument
C.
Achievement test
D.
Rubric
15.
Which of the following is the most reliable tool for determining the students’
ability to write? *
A.
Portfolio assessment
B. Scoring rubric
C.
Interview of students
D.
Self-assessment
16.
Using rubrics to assess PowerPoint presentations of students, which among the
following criteria is the most significant as it is the essence of
presentations? *
A.
Presenting design
B. Content value
C.
Oral delivery
D.
Orderly sequencing
17.
What is being assessed by the Rubric that seeks to assess high, moderate, or
low imaginative thinking? *
A.
Aesthetic
B. Creativity
C.
Appeal
D.
Craftsmanship
18.
Which of the following best describes creativity? *
A. Imaginative
B.
Positive
C.
Resourceful
D.
Inspired
19.
Among written categories of assessment methods, what instruments did Science
teacher Julian use when he prepared a list of behavior that make up a certain
type of performance in the use of a microscope? *
A.
Observation and self-report
B.
Written response instruments
C.
Product rating scale
D. Performance test
20.
Using extrinsic motivational assessment, what could be the noblest motive in
students pursuing lifetime work and mission for the teaching profession? *
A.
Promise of higher rank and prestige
B. Social service to upcoming generations
C.
Economic security and welfare
D.
Respected position in society
21.
Of the following, which is not a characteristic of the Response Journal that
reflects observations and interpretations of the student, such as on a reading
material or a field visit? *
A.
Encourage risk taking
B. Literary and grammatical
C.
Open and factual
D.
Non-threatening
22.
What is the criterion-referenced test designed to determine? *
A. Performance level on a specific skill
B.
Performance on a wide content of coverage
C.
Attaining a personal target
D.
Performance higher than other members of the group
23.
In interpreting assessment results, which is described when the results are
consistent? *
A. Reliability
B.
Subjectivity
C.
Validity
D.
Objectivity
24.
Since Teacher Alvin wants his test be more reliable, which of the following
should he adopt? *
A.
Make a test that requires students the need for more time to complete
B.
Make the test difficult
C. Increase number of test items
D.
Restrict range of abilities in the test
25.
Which measure of central tendency is most reliable when scores are extremely
high and low? *
A. Median
B.
Mode
C.
Mean
D.
Cannot be identified unless individual scores are given
26.
Which is a characteristic of the following score distribution: 98, 93, 93, 93,
90, 88, 87, 85, 85, 70, 51, 34, 34, 34, 20, 18, 15, 12, 9, 8, 6, 3, 1 *
A.
No discernible pattern
B.
Tri-modal
C.
Skewed to the right
D. Bimodal
27.
What is the normal curve in the grade distribution of students in a class? *
A.
All have average grades
B. Most get average grades, few high and low
C.
Most get high grades
D.
Most get low grades
28.
What can be said of student performance in a negatively skewed class score
distribution? *
A. Most students performed well
B.
All students had average performance
C.
Few students performed well
D.
Most students performed poorly
29.
Which is true when the standard deviation is high? *
A. Scores are spread out
B.
Scores are not extremes
C.
The bell curve shape is steep
D.
Scores are concentrated
30.
What does it mean when the difficulty index of a test item is equal to one (1)?
*
A. The test item is extremely easy
B.
The test item is not valid
C.
The test item is very good and should be retained
D.
The test item is very difficult
31.
What does the test mean if the difficulty index is 1? *
A.
Missed by everyone
B. Very easy
C.
Very difficult
D.
A quality item
32.
What does it mean when the discrimination index of a test item is -0.35? *
A.
More from the upper group got the item correctly
B.
The test is quite reliable
C. More from the lower group got the item correctly
D.
The test item is valid
33.
What does it mean if student Pete got a 60% percentile rank in class? *
A. He scored better than 60% of the class
B.
He got 60% of the test items correctly
C.
He scored less than 60% of the class
D.
He got 40% of the test wrongly
34.
A positive correlation is to direct relation; to what relation is negative
correlation? *
A.
Indefinite relation
B. Inverse relation
C.
Definite relation
D.
Neutral relation
35.
What is the meaning of a negative correlation between amount of practice and
number of error in tennis? *
A.
The decrease in the amount of practice sometimes affects the number of errors
B.
The increase in amount of practice does not at all affect the number of errors
C.
Decrease in the amount of practice goes with decrease in the number of errors
D. As the amount of practice increases, the number
of errors decreases
36.
What is the graphic illustration for the relationship between two variables? *
A.
Normal curve
B. Histogram
C.
Frequency polygon
D.
Scatter diagram
37.
Among standardized tests, which reveals strengths and weaknesses for purposes
of placement and formulating an appropriate instructional program? *
A.
Achievement tests
B.
Competency tests
C. Diagnostic tests
D.
Personality tests
38.
What kind of assessment helps teachers determine gaps in learning a subject
matter? *
A. Formative assessment
B.
Diagnostic test
C.
Summative assessment
D.
Placement examination
39.
An entering student in college would like to determine which course is best
suited for him. Which test is appropriate for this purpose? *
A.
Achievement test
B.
Diagnostic test
C.
Intelligence test
D. Aptitude test
40.
Tests should be non-threatening, but which of the following actually threatens
students? *
A.
Self-record of test scores
B. Surprise quiz
C.
Scheduled exam
D.
Submission of report
41.
In preparing classroom tests, which of the following checklist is the last
among the steps in test *
A.
How are the test scores to be tabulated?
B.
Have I prepared a Table of Specifications?
C. How are the test results to be reported?
D.
How is the objective item to be scored?
42.
With what should the assessment of test items be aligned? *
A.
Monitoring and evaluation
B. Instructional objectives
C.
Instructional media
D.
Content and process
43.
Principal Rodriguez introduced machine-scored tests in his school. What factor
in scoring does this add to make tests more reliable? *
A. Objective scoring
B.
Cost-saving
C.
Ease in checking
D.
Time-economics
44.
The test questions in Teacher Dante’s test were confusing and were subject to
wrong understanding, especially to poorer students. What was wrong with the
test? *
A.
Test items inappropriate for outcomes being measured
B.
Inappropriate level of difficulty of items
C.
Unclear directions
D. Ambiguity
45.
For easier correction of his test, Teacher Edward prepared the True and False
items in alternating 1, 3, 5, 7 etc. True, and 2, 4, 6 etc. False. What is
wrong with the test in terms of Usability? *
A.
Improper arrangement of items
B. Identifiable pattern of answers
C.
Ambiguity
D.
Poorly constructed test items
46.
What is wrong with test items that give clues to answers to questions? *
A.
Unclear directions
B.
Tests brevity
C.
Ambiguity
D. Poor construction
47.
In her tests, Teacher Dorie made tests that were either too difficult or too
easy. What was wrong with her tests? *
A. Inappropriate level of difficulty of the test
items
B.
Identifiable pattern of answers
C.
Unclear directions
D.
Ambiguity
48.
In using Essay questions, which of the following are these tests susceptible
to, such as to make them less reliable measure broad knowledge of the subject
matter? *
A. Bluffing
B.
Time consuming
C.
Guessing
D.
Cheating
49.
What primary response factor is considered by Essay questions? *
A. Wide sampling of ideas
B.
Factual information
C.
Originality
D.
Less time for constructing and scoring
50.
Among the opportunities for Essay Questions, which of the following does not
provide high-level thinking opportunity? *
A.
Analysis
B.
Evaluation
C.
Synthesis
D. Memorization