1) What is a closed, continuous path through which electrons can flow?
a.
Charge
b. Circuit
c.
Resistor
d.
Voltage
2)
What will be your charge if you scrape electrons from your feet while
scuffing across the rug?
a.
Negative
b.
Neutral
c. Positive
d.
Not enough information given
3)
How will your force change if the distance between the two charged
spheres is doubled?
a.
The force is doubled
b.
The force is tripled
c. The force is quadrupled
d.
The force is multiplied eight times
4)
A 6 ohm and 12 ohm resistors are connected in parallel with each other
to a battery. Which of the following is TRUE?
a.
More current will flow through the 20 ohm resistor.
b.
The current flowing through the resistors is the same.
c.
The resistor values must be equal for the circuit to work.
d. The potential difference
across the two resistors is the same.
5)
A new 1.5 V dry cell furnishes 30 A when short circuited. Find the
internal resistance of the cell.
a.
0.05 ohm
b.
0.10 ohm
c. 1.5 ohm
d.
30 ohm
6)
If three identical lamps are connected in parallel to a 6 V dry cell,
what is the voltage drop across each lamp?
a.
2 V
b.
3 V
c. 6 V
d.
18 V
7)
Which of the following describes an electric current?
a.
Regulates the movement of electric charge.
b.
The opposition a material offers to the electron flow.
c.
The electric pressure that causes charged particles to flow.
d. The movement of charged
particles in a specific direction.
8.
A 10
W bulb and a 20 W bulb are connected in a series circuit. Which bulb has the
more current flowing in it?
a.
The 10 W bulb
b.
The 20 W bulb
c. Both bulbs have the same
current
d.
Cannot be determined
9)
Which of the following are characteristics of a series circuit?
I.
The current that flows through each resistance is the same as the total
current throughout the circuit.
II.
The sum of all the individual voltage drops is the same as the applied
voltage.
III.
The reciprocal of the total resistance is equal to the sum of the
reciprocals of the separate resistances.
IV.
The voltage drop in each resistance is the same as the magnitude of the
applied voltage.
a. I and II
b.
I and III
c.
III and IV
d.
I, II and III
10)
Which states that the sum of all potential rises and potential drops in
any loop (closed circuit) is zero?
a.
Coulomb's Law
b. Kirchoff's Law
c.
Law of Electrolysis
d.
Ohm's Law
11)
A television and an electric fan are connected in parallel top a 220 V
line. The current in the television is 8 A and in the electric fan is 3 A. What
is the current flowing in the line?
a.
2.67 A
b.
5 A
c. 11 A
d.
24 A
12) What happens to current if resistance
increases?
a. Decreases
b.
Increases
c.
No change
d.
Cannot be determined
13)
Which of the following statements DOES NOT represent Ohm's Law?
a.
current/potential difference = constant
b.
potential difference/current = constant
c.
potential difference = current x resistance
d. current = resistance x
potential difference
14)
What is the resistance of an electric bulb drawing 1.2 A current and 6.0
V?
a.
0.2 ohm
b.
0.5 ohm
c.
2 ohm
d. 5 ohm
15)
What happens to the current-carrying ability of a wire as temperature
increases?
a.
There is no change.
b.
The wire can't carry any current.
c.
The wire can carry more current.
d. The wire can carry less
current.
16)
A 300 W at 220 V TV set is used at an average of 4 hours a day for 30
days. If the electrical energy costs P1.60 per kilowatt-hour, how much is the
energy cost?
a.
P5.76
b.
P22.50
c. P57.60
d.
P225.00
17)
Electromagnetic radiation can be used for wireless communications. Which
of the following can be used to transmit signals such as mobile phone calls?
a.
Infrared
b.
Gamma
c. Microwaves
d.
Radiowaves
18)
Which statement about the North-magnetic pole of the Earth is TRUE?
a.
Its location never changes.
b.
It corresponds to the N-pole of a bar magnet.
c. It corresponds to the S-pole
of a bar magnet.
d.
It is at the same location as the geographic north pole of the Earth.
19)
An iron nail can be turned into a temporary magnet if it is held in a
strong magnetic field. Which method of magnetization is this?
a.
Charging
b.
Conduction
c. Induction
d.
Saturation
20)
Which of the following factors affect the size of the induced current in
a coil?
I.
Number of turns in the coil
II.
Size of the inducing field
III.
Direction of the windings in the coil
IV.
Resistance of the wire in the coil
a.
I and II
b.
III and IV
c.
I, II and III
d. I, II and IV
21)
To use the right hand rule to predict the direction of an induced
current in a coil, your thumb must point ________.
a.
to the direction of the motion of the wire
b. to the N-pole of the induced
magnetic field
c.
in the direction of the induced current
d.
in the direction of the inducing field
22)
When a bar magnet is inserted into a coil, a current of 12.0 A is
induced into the coil. If four magnets of the same type are inserted into the
coil at the same time, what would be the induced current?
a.
3 A
b.
4 A
c.
12 A
d. 48 A
23)
What is the direction of a magnetic field within a magnet?
a. from north to south
b.
from south to north
c.
from to back
d.
back to front
24)
Which is the induced voltage across a stationary conductor in a
stationary magnetic field?
a.
decreased
b.
increased
c. zero
d.
reversed in polarity
25)
What is the magnetomotive force (mmf) of a wire with 8 turns carrying 3
A of current?
a.
2.67
b. 24
c.
240
d.
2,400
26)
A coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic field. If the number of
turns in the coil is decreased, what will happen to the voltage induced across
the coil?
a.
remain constant
b.
be excessive
c. decrased
d.
increased
27)
Which of the following is TRUE about the frequency and velocity of
electromagnetic waves?
a.
Frequency and wavelength are interdependent of each other
b. As frequency increases,
wavelength decreases
c.
As frequency increases, wavelength increases
d.
Frequency is constant for all wavelengths
28)
Which of the following correctly lists electromagnetic waves in order
from longest to shortest wavelength?
a. television, infrared, visible
light, x-rays
b.
gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
c.
radiowaves, infrared, gamma rays, ultraviolet
d.
microwaves, ultraviolet, visible light, gamma rays
29)
An electromagnetic wave is radiated by a straight wire antenna that is
oriented vertically. What should be the orientation of a straight wire
receiving antenna?
a.
diagonally
b. vertically
c.
horizontally and in a direction parallel to the wave's direction of
motion
d.
horizontally and in a direction perpendicular to the wave's direction of
motion
30)
What should a good diode tested with an ohmmeter indicate?
a.
High resistance when forward or reverse biased.
b.
Low resistance when forward or reversed biased.
c. High resistance when reverse
biased and low resistance when forward biased.
d.
High resistance when forward biased and low resistance when forward
biased.
31)
Vacuum tubes in a radio transmitter are used to ________.
a.
record programs
b.
provide DC supply
c. generate high power radio
waves
d.
provide lighting inside the studio
32)
Which material is the usual component of an anode?
a. Aluminum
b.
Carbon
c.
Copper
d.
Nickel
33)
A metal spoon is placed in a cup filled with hot coffee. After some
time, the exposed end of the spoon becomes hot even without a direct contact
with the liquid. What explains this phenomenon?
a. Conduction
b.
Convection
c.
Radiation
d.
Thermal expansion
34)
Which causes the warmth that you feel when you place your finger at the
side of the flame of a burning candle?
a.
Conduction
b.
Convection
c. Radiation
d.
Not enough information given
35)
Which process of heat transfer happens by the movement of mass from one
place to another?
a.
Conduction
b. Convection
c.
Induction
d.
Radiation
36)
When work is done by a system, what happens to its temperature assuming
that no heat is added to it?
a. decreases
b.
increases
c.
remains the same
d.
none of these
37)
Which states that "when two systems are in thermal equilibrium with
a third system, then they are in thermal equilibrium with each other?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b.
First Law of Thermodynamics
c.
Second Law of Thermodynamics
d.
Mechanical Equivalent of Heat
38)
What happens in an adiabatic process?
a. No heat eneters or leaves the
system
b.
The pressure of the system remain constant
c.
The temperature of the system remains constant
d.
The system does no work nor work is done on it.
39)
What thermodynamic process is involved in a closed car inside a hot
garage?
a.
Adiabatic
b.
Isobaric
c. Isochoric
d.
Isothermal
40)
Consider the thermal energy transfer during a chemical process. When
heat is transferred to the system, the process is said to be ________ and the
sign of H is ________.
a. endothermic, positive
b.
endothermic, negative
c.
exothermic, positive
d.
exothermic, negative
41)
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a.
Entropy increases with the number of microstates of the system.
b.
Any irreversible process results in an overall increase in entropy.
c.
The total entropy of the universe increases in any spontaneous process.
d. The change in entropy in a
system depends on the initial and final states of the system and the path taken
from one state to the other.
42)
During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a
________.
a.
compressor
b. condenser
c.
evaporator
d.
expansion valve
43)
Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a refrigeration system?
a.
Rejects energy to a low temperature body.
b.
Rejects energy to a high temperature body.
c.
Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high
temperature body.
d. Removes heat from a high
temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body.
44)
Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion
potential in the stratosphere?
a.
Ammonia
b.
Carbon dioxide
c. Fluorine
d.
Sulfur dioxide
45)
Which phenomenon is BEST explained by the particle nature of light?
a.
Doppler effect
b.
Interference
c. Photoelectric effect
d.
Polarization
46)
According to the quantum theory of light, the energy of light is carried
in discrete units called ________.
a.
alpha particles
b.
photoelectrons
c. photons
d.
protons
47)
Rutherford observed that most of the alpha particles directed at a
metallic foil appear to pass through unhindered, with only a few deflected at
large angles. What did he conclude?
a.
Atoms can easily absorb and re-emit aplha particles.
b. Atoms consist mainly of empty
space and have small, dense nuclei.
c.
Alpha particles behave like waves when they interact with atom.
d.
Atoms have most of their mass distributed loosely in an electron cloud.
48)
When an electron changes from a higher energy to a lower energy state
within an atom, a quantum of energy is ________.
a.
absorbed
b. emitted
c.
fissioned
d.
fused
49)
When does nuclear fission occur?
a.
When we cut nuclei into two with a very small cutting device.
b.
When one nucleus bumps into another causing a chain reaction.
c.
When a nucleus divides spontaneously, with no apparent reason.
d. When electrical forces inside
a nucleus overpower forces.
50)
When does nuclear fusion release energy?
a.
When uranium emits a neutron
b.
When heavy ions fuse together
c. When very light nuclei fuse
together
d.
When uranium splits into two fragments